I would be suspicious of any drug that contains fluorine. Fluorine displaces iodine in our cells. Iodine is involved in regulating the rate of energy production in the mitochondria.
I would be suspicious of any drug that contains fluorine. Fluorine displaces iodine in our cells. Iodine is involved in regulating the rate of energy production in the mitochondria.
"No where is this process more evident than in the case of the halides, which are all antagonistic elements to iodine, meaning they will impede the absorption of iodine. Heavy metals get stored in the same receptors that are looking for iodine. Almost all of us are exposed to bromine and fluorine and are storing these toxic halides in our iodine deficient receptors. The mechanism of iodine in the cells is very ancient and lacking of specificity, in fact, cells are not able to distinguish iodide from other anions of similar atomic or molecular size, which may act as “pseudo-iodides”: bromide, flouride, chlorine, thiocyanate, cyanate, nitrate, pertechnate, perchlorate."
You liked my comment on an article in the Post recommending Fluvoxamine (dec 23 o this post) I'm writing on another matter. You have said that the dnager of "variants" is non-existent. I am trying to reconcile that with Geert Vanden Bossche's argument that mass vaccinating with the non-sterlie vaccines like the mRNA jabs, is creating immune pressure that could create "immune escape," or the creation of a pathogen that is resistant to any existing antibodies (from what I can tell, this includes from natural immunity, not just vaccines, but I may have gotten that wrong.) It seems that omicron is currently resistant to all vaccines, although I'm not sure if it's resistant to natural immunity. What I am asking is a) Do I understand Bossche's theory correctly? If do, b) do you agree with it? if so, how does that relate to your point that "variants" do/will not vary enough from the original SARS virus to be resistant (I may well not have gotten your theory correct, either. I am just trying to make sense of this in order to give coherent arguments to pro-vaccination people). Any clarity that you can offer me would be appreciated.
I would be suspicious of any drug that contains fluorine. Fluorine displaces iodine in our cells. Iodine is involved in regulating the rate of energy production in the mitochondria.
https://balancedhealthtoday.com/Iodine-and-Chelation-Heavy-Metals-and-Halogens.html
Here is the problem:
"No where is this process more evident than in the case of the halides, which are all antagonistic elements to iodine, meaning they will impede the absorption of iodine. Heavy metals get stored in the same receptors that are looking for iodine. Almost all of us are exposed to bromine and fluorine and are storing these toxic halides in our iodine deficient receptors. The mechanism of iodine in the cells is very ancient and lacking of specificity, in fact, cells are not able to distinguish iodide from other anions of similar atomic or molecular size, which may act as “pseudo-iodides”: bromide, flouride, chlorine, thiocyanate, cyanate, nitrate, pertechnate, perchlorate."
I don’t believe the F atom is at all available from drugs containing it.
It’s eliminated still covalently bound to the drug or a metabolite.
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You liked my comment on an article in the Post recommending Fluvoxamine (dec 23 o this post) I'm writing on another matter. You have said that the dnager of "variants" is non-existent. I am trying to reconcile that with Geert Vanden Bossche's argument that mass vaccinating with the non-sterlie vaccines like the mRNA jabs, is creating immune pressure that could create "immune escape," or the creation of a pathogen that is resistant to any existing antibodies (from what I can tell, this includes from natural immunity, not just vaccines, but I may have gotten that wrong.) It seems that omicron is currently resistant to all vaccines, although I'm not sure if it's resistant to natural immunity. What I am asking is a) Do I understand Bossche's theory correctly? If do, b) do you agree with it? if so, how does that relate to your point that "variants" do/will not vary enough from the original SARS virus to be resistant (I may well not have gotten your theory correct, either. I am just trying to make sense of this in order to give coherent arguments to pro-vaccination people). Any clarity that you can offer me would be appreciated.
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