OK so assuming this is correct, does it not suggest that the spike protein is NOT causing the problems? It has been widely assumed that Moderna causes higher incidence of SAE's (including mortality) because the spike concentration (mod-mRNA) is FAR higher in Moderna. There are other studies which claim to illustrate this very point.
OK so assuming this is correct, does it not suggest that the spike protein is NOT causing the problems? It has been widely assumed that Moderna causes higher incidence of SAE's (including mortality) because the spike concentration (mod-mRNA) is FAR higher in Moderna. There are other studies which claim to illustrate this very point.
So the question now becomes, if not the concentration of spikes (mod-mRNA) responsible, what IS causing the relative difference for Pfizer? Does this now start to suggest that the contaminant profile is more of an issue or are there other factors?
OK so assuming this is correct, does it not suggest that the spike protein is NOT causing the problems? It has been widely assumed that Moderna causes higher incidence of SAE's (including mortality) because the spike concentration (mod-mRNA) is FAR higher in Moderna. There are other studies which claim to illustrate this very point.
So the question now becomes, if not the concentration of spikes (mod-mRNA) responsible, what IS causing the relative difference for Pfizer? Does this now start to suggest that the contaminant profile is more of an issue or are there other factors?
it's a QA issue. Moderna is more deadly, but the batches are even a greater problem.